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106) If Christ used the Septuagint then you can put the Bible in your own words in either a paraphrase or your own translation.

You are now God andprivate interpretation is your method of rule and your source of authority.

It is used to justify "dynamic equivalence" in translation rather than the formal literal equivalence method (which is based upon the concept of verbal After all, if Christ did not care about the specific words of Scripture, why should we?

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The existence of this translation is based upon a letter called the "Letter of Aristeas".

Aristeas claims to be a high official in the court of the Egyptian King Ptolemy Philadelphius.

Roman Catholics use the idea that Christ quoted the Septuagint to justly include the Apocrypha in their Bibles.

Their reasoning goes like this: "Christ used and honored the Septuagint, the Septuagint includes the Apocrypha, so Christ honored and authorized the Apocrypha." Since no Hebrew Old Testament ever included the books of the Apocrypha, the Septuagint is the only source the Catholics have for justifying their canon.

Geisler and Nix, A General Introduction to the Bible says, "The details of this story are undoubtedly fictitious but the letter does relate the authentic fact that the LXX was translated for the use of Greek speaking Jews of Alexandria (p. But if this story is "fictions" then there is no "factual" information about the origin of the Septuagint.